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1NT response forcing or semi-forcing?

For alerting purposes, which of these understandings about when a 1NT response by an unpassed hand may be passed by opener should be described as "semi-forcing"?  Does the ACBL have an official statement attempting to define the distinction?  My concern is with the best description for the opponents, not the merits of the different understandings.

Please select up to 4 choices.

Opener only passes with a minimum 4=5=2=2
Opener may pass with minimum and (a) 4=5=2=2 or (b) when his three-card minor is weak (Jxx)
Opener may pass with minimum and (a) 4=5=2=2 (b) a weak major (Qxxxx or worse) AND weakish three-card minor
Opener only passes with sub-minimum opening bid

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