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A few questions about an easy hand
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Seven board Swiss match, playing with a friend, but with whom you've never played before, you pick up:

North
AKQJxx
x
x
K10xxx
W
N
E
S
1
P
?

We desperately wanted to keep it simple, so our card is a pretty vanilla 2/1. 

Threshold question. Do you jump shift into spades? On the one hand, that's a pretty solid suit, 62% to have no losers opposite a void, and 86% to have no losers opposite a stiff. On the other hand, you are two suited, and while the stiff in partner's suit looks bad, this is certainly a slam suitable hand. Do you put all of your eggs in one basket?

I'll add a page while you mull that one over...

I decided to jump shift. Yes, I'm burying clubs forever. And I might not do it if I had different suits. But if I bid 1 and partner bids 2 of either red suit, I'll be at the 4 level before partner realizes I have a black suited slam suitable hand. (i.e., 1-1-2-3 (4th suit forcing) - 3 of a red suit - 4, and partner still doesn't realize I have self sufficient spades). If I had touching suits, maybe I would be more likely to bid slower, but with spades and clubs, the more I thought about it, the worse the auction was likely to get.

So, I jump shifted, and partner bid 3. Next question. Does 3 unequivocally set trumps, and, if it does, what does it ask opener to do next? Is opener expected to now disregard shape questions and bid his/her cheapest cue bid?

Whatever partner is supposed to do, you hear 4. So it's been:

North
AKQJxx
x
x
K10xxx
W
N
E
S
1
P
2
P
3
P
3
P
4
P
?

What's your bid?

I was unwilling now to bid 5. Or even 5. If all of partner's values are in the red suits, I could easily have a bunch of losers in clubs. On the other hand, partner could easily have x AJTxx Axxxx Qx, and this is far from the worst slam I'll ever bid, though not one I want to be in at IMPs. That's a VERY minimum hand, certainly consistent with the bidding so far. Should I continue to look?

I chose not to, and bid 4. This was... not great. Partner's hand was:

North
AKQJxx
x
x
K10xxx
South
Axxxx
KQxxx
AQx
W
N
E
S
1
P
2
P
3
P
3
P
4
P
4
P
P
P

Clearly, I thought partner should bid 4 with his hand, but is that standard? Equally important, is this even a slam I really want to be in at IMPs. Basically, it needs 4-3 spades and either 3-2 clubs, or stiff J in either hand, or Jxxx to my right. In the real world, I got a club lead, solving that suit (which was 3-2 all along), and made 6 when spades were, indeed, 4-3. But playing with a clone of me, I would have been in it. Are me and my clone correct? Or is 4 enough. (Note that it was a push in an A swiss teams, but the team we were playing was not very good, and at VPs, you can't afford to not take advantage of the weaker teams in the event.)

Thoughts? Ideas on what's standard? Input on my thinking process? I'm not looking to blame partner or take the blame, which is why this isn't an ATB article. I'm looking to firm up my understanding of how my peers are thinking about hands like this. Thank you!

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