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Hand evaluation question

Two-part question:

IMPs (8-board Swiss match), no one vulnerable.  West opens 2NT (21-22 HCP), silencing the opponents.  East holds xxx KJxxxx Jxx K.  With both Texas and Jacoby transfers available, East bids 3 followed by 4 over partner's 3 rebid, a mild slam try.  What do you think of East's sequence?

Across the table, West's hand is of equivalent value to AQTx ATx Axx AKx.  (I've permuted West's non-heart suits so that you can't check how well the hands fit together before making your decision.)  Assume that Blackwood won't give you any useful information and any other slam tries are undiscussed, so there are really only two bidding options:  pass or 6.  Which would you choose?

West should pass. East was definitely too conservative.
West should pass. East was a little conservative.
West should pass. East bid just right.
West should pass. East was a little aggressive.
West should pass. East was definitely too aggressive.
West should bid slam. East was definitely too conservative.
West should bid slam. East was a little conservative.
West should bid slam. East bid just right.
West should bid slam. East was a little aggressive.
West should bid slam. East was definitely too aggressive.

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