What follows did occur and it made me think. I would like to hear, or read, others' opinions.
Matchpoints Noone vulnerable Dealer North No opposing bidding North South play a strong club style
North South
P 1C
1NT 3NT
The North/South agreement is that an unpassed North 1NT is a balanced with12-14 HCP while 2NT would show a balanced 9-11. There are ways of looking for major suit fits. South did not recall a specific agreement for what 1NT showed when made by a passed hand. South announced 1NT as showing 12-14 (North in the past had passed some bad balanced hands with as many as 12 HCP). North upon hearing South's explanation volunteered that he, being a passed hand, could not possibly hold 12-14. What do you think of North's effort in being his brothers' keeper? Is it correct to bring up the fact that he is a passed hand (something that for all that he knows escaped South) to his opponents' and partner's attention? Should he wait for the auction to end and then comment on South's explanation?
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