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How should these hands be bid playing 2/1 GF?

North
KQ42
AQ763
8
Q82
South
53
AK6543
AKJ94
W
N
E
S
1
P
2
P
2
P
3
P
3NT
P
P
P

I am interested in how you think these hands should be bid using 2/1 GF methods (playing matchpoints if that matters).

In our methods, opener's 2 rebid shows 4(+) s but does not promise any extra values.

IMO, responder's 3 rebid is not necessarily natural (could be looking for help for 3NT), but that perhaps is just my opinion as I"m not sure partner and I have a clear agreement.  So I would be interested in your opinions on this point also.  IMO, the 3 rebid would be consistent with something like Axx-xx-AKJxx-Jxx.  My view is that responder would normally rebid NT with s unless his hand were strong enough that he planned to continue with a 4 third bid (e.g. over opener's 3NT) to show slam interest.  Your views?

I believe these hands should be bid to 6 which makes on actual deal, and a simulation showed that these two hands will make 6 on about 70% of random deals (double dummy play/defense).  

In our club game, NO PAIR reached 6.  One was in 6NT and one in 6, both -2.  Everyone else played 3NT with four pairs (including us) making 4 (always possible double dummy) and the other two pairs making only 9 tricks in NT. 

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