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Precision 1 Opening Bid - How to show both minors

Precision players using the nebulous 1 opening (at least 2 cards) have to choose how to clarify minor suits.  Certainly with a strong 5-5 hand in and , one can open 1 and rebid 3.  Let's agree on that.  You're agreement to play 2 showing a 6-card suit is firm and not negotiable (everything is negotiable in 3rd seat after 2 passes Smile). Let's also assume that with 54 or 45 and 14-15 HCP, a jump shift at opener's second turn is NOT agreed. With these hands one shows strength on the third round of bidding.  1NT is 14-16 HCP and can be semi-balanced.  J/S promise at least 5-5 and a maximum, if not a very pure hand.  Now how do you handle the following hand types? These are representative minimum hands.  

A) Kxx x KQxx Axxxx

B) Kxx x Axxxx KQxx

C) Kxx x AKQxxx xxx

D) Kxx x AKQxx xxxx

E) Kxx Kxx xx AQxxx

Let's pose two mutually exclusive approaches:

1) Opener's simple rebid of 2 shows either 4+=5 or 5=4+ in the minors.  With 5 Clubs and only 2-3 cards, you have to rebid 1N or raise partner on 3 cards in their Major.

2) Opener's simple rebid of 2 shows clubs only (and not 5+ ).  With 4=5 int the minors rebid 2. With 5=4 in the minors rebid 2 and expect to bid next.  

In both cases we'll assume that a J/S to 3 shows 55 shape and values to bid at the 3-level.  Looking at hands A thorough E above how do the 2 approaches compare? Let's assume 1 - (P) - to you as responder:

Hands_________________2 = 45/54 minors_______2 = only

A) Kxx x KQxx Axxxx ................2.........................................2

B) Kxx x Axxxx KQxx.................2........................................2

C) Kxx x AKQxxx xxx.................2........................................2

D) Kxx x AKQxx xxxx.................2........................................2

E) Kxx xxx xx AKQxx................2/1N...................................1N/2/2

Notice the points where ambiguity can occur.  For hand A), the 45/54 approach is exact, but the 2 approach does not communicate 4 cards. For Hand B) the 45/54 approach is again exact, but the 2 approach hides this time (requiring a 2 rebid on a thin 5-card suit). Hand C) Both styles rebid 2 but in the 2 agreement, the nature of the club holding is ambiguous.  For hand D) The 45/54 might overstate the suit whereas a 2 rebid seems short by one card.  the 2 rebid here by 2 approach represents the hand exactly.  For hand E) the 45/54 either rebids 1N or 2. The 2 approach rebids 2 (or raises to 2 or rebids 1N).  

So the question is, where is the advantage?  Should we show the second minor early, making the off center hand with 5-clubs difficult to show, or should we show the alone and hide the 2-suited hands one more round?  

What do you choose to do?

(FWIW Walter Johnson advocated the 45/54 approach for a 2 rebid and I believe MR play that way -  at least their client system does). 

2 rebid shows 4+=5/5=4+ in the minors
2 rebid shows only
Either approach equally good
Another approach (Please comment)
I don't play Precision

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