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T-Walsh: 1-1-2 uncontested

You hold KQxx-xx-Axxx-Kxx

You play 15-17 NT and 1 would show 5 and/or an unbalanced hand, so you open 1. Partner responds 1, denying a 4-card major unless they have a GF hand with longer diamonds (also denying six clubs). With 8-10 balanced they would have responded 1NT. So they tend to have some diamonds.

1NT seems normal but 2 will often play better, 3NT should probably be played in partner's hand, and it would be nice to show partner your 4-card diamonds if partner is slamish or if opps are about to balance. This of course requires that partner expects this kind of hand.

Four rounds later you pick up KQxx-x-Axx-Kxxxx. It would be nice if 2 shows six or at least a very good five. So if you can bid 2 and this shows five clubs and 3-4 diamonds, partner will be well placed to determine the contract.

There's obviously a problem with bidding 2 on both of the above hands. You may also wonder about the range of the bid. If 11-15, you would need an artificial 2 rebid for reverses in either diamonds or hearts, maybe. Or maybe you could play the 2 rebid as 11-17 with 5+clubs and 3-4 diamonds. Responder would then need an artificial 2 bid to sort out the strength.

So how do you want to play the 2 rebid?

3-4 diamonds, minimum, can be balanced
4 diamonds, minimum, can be balanced
3-4 diamonds, minimum, unbalanced
4 diamonds, minimum, unbalanced
3-4 diamonds, wide range, unbalanced
4 diamonds, wide range, unbalanced
Reverse strength, and I would open 1 with 45 minimum
Reverse strength, and I would open 1 and rebid 2 with 45 minimum
Something else
I refuse to play this system
I don't understand this poll

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