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T-Walsh: continuations after 1-1-1NT

System: 15-17, 5542, T-Walsh. 

You hold ATx-x-QTxxx-Kxxx, or more generally some (31)(54) hand with 9-10 HCPs.

1-1

1NT

Opener typically has (semi) 12-14 balanced, but with 4414 (maybe 4315 with poor clubs?) the range is 12-16. To make this playable, we play a direct 1NT response as mandatory with 9-10 HCPs. With this unbalanced hand, it would be nice to be able to bid a nonforcing 2 after opener's 1NT rebid. This would be 5-10 or some such so opener will normally pass or correct to 2, but could raise clubs with a 3-suited maximum.

On the other hands, it would be nice to play XYZ (or some other system with a forcing 2) as the many different strong hands which responder can have would otherwise become awkward.

So how do you handle the the (31)(54) 9-10 hands?

2 is now nonforcing
A direct 2 response to the opening shows this hand
I pick my poison: We will play 1NT, 2, or 3m.
Something else
I refuse to play T-Walsh in the context of a 15-17 5542 system
I don't understand this poll

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