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Two deals from common game Thursday Jan 17
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Two deals threw up discussion. I'll try to go an indirect route on the first:

You hold:

K86

Q10752

42

A54

The auction proceeds, starting on your left. (Pass)-1-(1)

you bid 1 and hear a 2 passed hand raise to your left. Pass (not three hearts)-2 back to you. You would double?

Redouble to your left, 2 from partner. You pass this round to LHO who bids 3, and partner bless his cotton socks bids 3. What is going on? 

 

 

On the first hand partner didn't bid 3, but I felt he had to act again, with AJ102/96/6/KQ9763.

Given that 4 makes their way and neither 3 nor 4 quite fetch this wasnt a big deal, but it might have been.

 So how would you bid our two combined hands.

 

The second deal was a cui culpa? Playing standard strong no-trump base how do you bid in your own methods to 6 with:

A7

AJ104

AK983

93

 

K9643

KQ

1075

AJ8

 

If South were dealer it would be easy but i opened a strong no-trump and we transferred into 3NT.

Had O opened 1 and rebid 2 over 1 we would have had the problem of what responder does next.

3 gets the support across but tends to deny five spades unless you have both a decent hand AND decent diamonds. Not 1075.

Over partner's almost forced 2 do i raise to three, or bid 2NT or (ugh!) 3? What then?

Suggestions welcome.

 

(PS the good news was 4-1 diamonds offside so 6 went down...but that isnt the point.)

 

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