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Weird ATB problem using transfer responses to 1

A couple of friends had the following disaster at a club game yesterday.  They play that a 1 opening shows 2+ and 1 of a red suit is then a transfer. 

North
A954
A5432
Q74
2
South
8
KQJ10
KJ6
AQ1085
W
N
E
S
1
P
1
P
3
P
4
P
4
P
P
P

1 and 1 are as described above.

3 was a splinter raise of hearts, showing too much for a jump raise to 3 (1-1-1 tends to be a minimum without 4-card support)

4 was a cue-bid, in theory showing a high club honor. North felt that two aces and a 5th trump compensated. 3NT as a non-serious slam try was also available.

4 was concern about having the KJ6 led through.  4 was also available as RKC/Kickback.

Pass was in the belief that partner lacked a diamond control.  4NT was also available as a surrogate spade cue-bid 

Which was the worst bid?

 

3 - 3, although a slight underbid, was preferable at matchpoints
4 - 3NT as a non-serious slam try was better
4 - "other" - please explain
4 - 4 Kickback was better
4 - 4 was better
4 - "other" - please explain
Pass - 5 here to command partner to bid slam with a control was better
Pass - 4NT as a surrogate control bid was better
Pass - "other" - please explain
No blame, it's a slam you shouldn't bid in a club game.

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