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What do you think of this?
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This is a hand that has bothered me for some time now and I would like to get it off my chest. You are a very experienced player (representing your country on several occasions) sitting West with the following hand:

West
KQ
xxxx
KQxxx
KQ

You open a 4+ 1 (always unbalanced according to the methods) which North doubles for Take-Out. Partner resonds 1 and South bids 2. You jump raise partner to 3 and partner now continues with 4. What do you do now?

To recap: 

W
N
E
S
1
X
1
2
3
P
4
P
?
 

My guess is that you sign-off in 4 as your hand is not what partner would expect even if the jump raise is a little lighter than in Standard. That is not what happened at the table however as West passed. Dummy tabled

East
Jxxx
xx
xxxx
Jxx

and the contract drifted two off when the defence missed the opportunity to overruff dummy on a fourth round of hearts. End of story? Not really.

What had happened before this was that 3 was alerted by East and upon inquiry was explained as "I don't know what that shows but as 1 is a transfer to spades, it should either be a strong 5-6 or a splinter with spade-support". What do you think of the pass now?

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