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All comments by David Parsons
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Yes, I would think it created a forcing pass situation.
Oct. 31
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Oh yeah, I'll include that too!
Oct. 25
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Please ignore this poll – I messed up and forgot to put in a pass. I will repost the poll.
Oct. 19
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Nikos, Are you implying that an uncontested auction of 2-2-2NT should be passed with the OP hand?
Oct. 12
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Paul – I am not sure that I follow your logic at all. You say that you don't bid 4 because you think the opponents may be able to bid 4 making. And, yet when your partner doubles 3 for penalty, you are suddenly feel that 3 has more of a chance of going down than making. Logically, it would seem that you have correctly evaluated your hand as having less defensive tricks than you advertised to your partner and therefore should be compelled to bid 4. It's unlikely they'll go to 4 when partner has penalty doubled 3. Anyway, that line of reasoning seems most logical to me.

Thanks for all the input from everyone. My partner and I have agreed that with favorable vulnerability and with a declined invitation to 3, the balancing seat can not pass. Aware of that, and after discussion, we feel that South should double and North should pull to 4.

As usual, it has been a very educational discussion. Thanks!
Sept. 7
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And if South doubles 3, what would you do as North?
Sept. 6
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Sure, partner's hand was:

3
AK62
KQJT42
T6

West's hand was:

AKQT862
QT3
8
Q2

It was the Common Game for Tuesday Evening, Board 18:

https://tcgcloud.bridgefinesse.com/PHPPOSTCGS.php?options=LookupClioBoard&acblno=4402820&date=2019-09-03&board=18&gamemode=Nite

The most prevalent score was 4 down 1, with a 66% matchpoints score. 3 making four was a 34% matchpoints score. 4x down 1 was a 50% matchpoints score.
Sept. 6
David Parsons edited this comment Sept. 6
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Paul – In the actual hand, partner had 13 HCPs and was 1462, with all his HCPs in hearts and diamonds. The total tricks in the actual hand was 19 and 4x, down one was the top score by 30% of the field. With partner's hand, would you have bid 4 (or 4)?
Sept. 6
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Paul – Yes, LOTT would tell you 16 or 17 total tricks. So, with that knowledge and if you trust partner, does that change your answer?
Sept. 6
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I see, Richard. So you judge the chance of (a) less than 50% (otherwise double is the logical choice), but the chance of (a) plus the chance of (b) together is greater than 50% (otherwise 4 is the logical choice). That logic does make some sense. Thanks.
Sept. 6
David Parsons edited this comment Sept. 6
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So, if you think that it's likely that they'll make 3 based on experience, then why wouldn't you bid 4?
Sept. 6
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You have the last bid. What do you think is the likely outcome of us playing in hearts and them playing in spades? Then check the scores at matchpoints if you do something versus passing. I thank you for your answer, that's why I posted. I'm just surprised at the “pass” result at this vulnerability in matchpoints.
Sept. 6
David Parsons edited this comment Sept. 6
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Matchpoints with favorable vulnerability and the opponents compete at the three level. Aren't you supposed to do something other than pass?
Sept. 5
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When partner shows a hand with 3=2=5=3 shape, you might think otherwise.
July 20
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South had:
Q9732
75
AJ86
T3
July 20
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Jeff,

Thanks for your reply…your opinion is always welcome. South had five spades to the Q, 7 HCPs and the AJxx. Given that the opponents were looking for 3NT, it should come as no surprise to South that the opponents have 25 HCPs between them. Given that, the South diamond holding (AJ32) should NOT penalty double according to Mel's Rule of Nine , as the appropriate calculation adds up to eight (actually 7.5).

My interpretation of Mel's Rule of Nine has always been that you add level (4) to trump holding (4) to trumps greater than 9 (2) and subtract one for every 2 HCPs that your side has less than 20 (-2.5). This is written in the agreement document I have with my partner.
July 20
David Parsons edited this comment July 20
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One opponent opens (usually requiring 12 HCPs) and the other responds 1NT (usually requiring 8 HCPs, in response to a 1 opening). Standard bidding books tell you this. As long as you're taking inference about opponent's clubs, you might as well assume they're bidding according to the book elsewhere.
June 22
David Parsons edited this comment June 22
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So, you would say that 2 can't be a club suit, Richard? In that case describe the shape of the 4HCP hand that East might have. Just wondering.
June 22
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True – Okay, then North is 4=4=2=3, South is 3=3=5=2 (diamonds are 8xxxx) and East is 3=3=2=5. I've seen worse – the other day, an auction went (1) X (1N) All Pass, and the 1NT bidder (a pro) held two four card majors.
June 22
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Here's a possibility: North is 4=4=3=2, South is 3=3=4=3, East is 3=3=2=5. Right?
June 22
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