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All comments by Donald Lurie
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Thx DC. up the line is what I meant by next steps. so it's basically SMP but with the tweak to show minimum
dhl
May 31
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in SMP, i believe that the 3C response shows 3 cards in responder's minor, 5 in the other minor, and (1-4) in the majors/ 3D asks for the 4-cd major. pp 60
So so much depends on your response/ rebid structures. I've seen a published write where Kokish after 1D-2C is played.
May 31
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DC: Not sure how your method determined that west had shown a minimum: at what point did that occur? I think I was with you in terms of the 2S bid showing an unspecified splinter for s. But I am not clear which subsequent bid indicated that west was minimum. Was I incorrect in thinking that the 2N bid asked opener to identify the location of the shortness? Did your methods decide to rebid 3C with a minimum after which you can re-ask for the shortness via 3D, and to otherwise respond 3M or the next steps to show the splinter with a max?
Just guessing: trying to figure out your method…..would appreciate if you could explain further.
Thx, DHL
May 31
Donald Lurie edited this comment May 31
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There has been so much discussion on BW involving the theme of needing to have as many agreements about as many situations as possible and about follow-up bids. Imo, this can not be over-emphasized, and what happened on this OP hand and its companion hand would seem to support such a contention.

The above Kx, Kx, AKQx, AT8xx hand is/ was the companion hand to void, AQJT3, T8532, K72. I held the 2245 19 (20) hand and had to decide what to do over the 2 opener. Dbl did not look right with Hx only in the other major and might wrong-side NT if partner bid 2N leb. My then 3C rebid would not suggest the type of hand i had. 3NT might sound like a running suit or something else and it ate up space so that didn't appeal to me unless i felt like gambling on partner having a little something which would allow me to run 9 tricks, to win the race.
Like about 2/3 or the respondents to this poll, I selected the underbid of 2NT. It seemed to come as close to describing my hand within some range and hand type in one bid that I could think of. In retrospect, after seeing partner's hand, it seemed to put us in potentially a good place.
Over 2NT partner transferred to 3 at which point the previously silent lho who had JT954 in s decided now might be a nice time to bid 3S to show his/ her partner that her/ she had nice trump support. My partner, who takes distinct pleasure torturing me with his bids, especially when the situation has not been discussed, doubled 3S. Is this just cards, is it penalty oriented given the vulnerability and the bidding, or is takeout oriented but can be converted with good cards in s?
Had partner bid 4D, I just might have found a 4 bid (ya hit me in s).
7D takes all the marbles if you can get there and determine that you have no loser. and 6 or 6 would seem to make. Apparently just getting to some slam would have been good.
Well, I didn't know how partner intended his double (and we've been playing together for years - i shoulda guessed takeout) so i passed and almost had cardiac issues (again) when dummy tabled 5 s. Despite that, we were able to cash 8 tricks for + 800 and win 6 imps for the board. How we managed to actually gain 6 imps for +800 evades me. Apparently few got to a slam. I will try and see if i can bring up the result on BBO but don't count on it.

Bridge is sooo much fun….I need my therapist now.
May 31
Donald Lurie edited this comment May 31
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ur playing leb.
May 29
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was waiting for someone to mention DPI. Poll assuming DPI not in effect (never played it)
May 26
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fixed - 3 answers now allowed (I think)
FH: thx for responding again
May 26
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I really have to apologize for using the wrong format for setting up this poll. I didn't realize that only one answer would be permitted, that I needed to use the multiple answer format (I guess). Sincere appreciation to all of you who have responded and written comments so far and in the future.

I expected unanimity (or nearly so) on the first two questions. although a few people I had spoken to would have dissented. The third question was where the most disagreement occurred. Perhaps I should redo the poll in a multiple answer format.
May 26
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This was the full hand.
West: T73, QJ9, K95, AJ73/
North: 86, T72, JT643, T52/
East: AKQ9, AK6, A7, KQ86/
South: J542, 8543, Q82, 94

not having the 5NT bid as inviting 7 available, the hand was played in 7N, -1 with the spades not being 3-3 or jack dropping stiff or doubleton. The right minimums, the right 11-count that included -J or even 10 count with -J, no J, and s 3-2 permits you to cash 13 tricks off the top. It's just that, with the given suit, 7 is the superior contract on this occasion (barring really bad C and D breaks which always seem to happen to me).
Question 1: On the given combined hands, what are the chances of being able to have the spade suit generate 4 tricks?
Question 2: Which contract do you want to be in playing match points?
May 16
Donald Lurie edited this comment May 16
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I like this.
much better than 5N pick-a-slam which is how my partner for this hand (and some other partners) would have interpreted 5N.
bidding had gone 1N-2C-2D -?
I'm wondering if there is a way to distinguish between a 4-card suit up the line and a 5-card suit? Or is it bid 4+ - card suits up the line at the appropriate level? Also, do you want opener to rebid a weak 4-card major (no top honor)?

Would the recommendations be any different if the scoring format was match points?
May 16
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OK: for all you 2 bidders, partner rebids 2. For the 3 puppet bidders, partner responds 3 (no 5cd M) and 3N over which ever bid you use to shows your 4-card major. (I suspect one bids the 4-cd M you have playing minis seeing that you are the stronger hand, but I could be/ probably am wrong.
Is everyone agreed that 5NT now says 6 of something (4-card suits up the line sounds good) with a minimum, and 7 with max?
Or do some of you interpret 5NT as being pick-a-slam? (I, personally, don't think PAS makes a lot of sense, at least to me, in such a sequence. However, two people at the table weren't sure but thought it might/ did.)
May 14
Donald Lurie edited this comment May 14
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This hand reminds me of an old cartoon showing two senior ladies discussing their bidding methods. One says to the other, “Now remember, Myrtle, 4NT is always Blackwood!”
They would be in a better position to assess for a possible grand, to invite 7. Their 4NT would show 2 places to play: 6 or 7.
Oh, well. This is what you get at 2:45 am.
May 8
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partner gets another chance.
May 8
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what is the rush to bid 7H at MPs? Partner must have had a reason for asking about kings. So why not answer partner's question(s) and then show something else, like trick source, if partner tries to sign off in 6H and you've already decided that you're not stopping short of 7? At least partner will have more information should he/ she then decide to convert to 7N.
Side issue: Does 5N promise the Q? or enough s that Q is (hopefully) covered by length in s? Not everyone plays this at MPs, some may bid 5N to try to decide on 6N vs 6H as CZ suggested above. I suspect you agreed that it does since you were willing to jump to 7.
May 8
Donald Lurie edited this comment May 8
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thx tom: that's what i thought i remembered…dang-near slam in hand. but you know my memory.
would make for a good bidding poll
May 3
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Tom. can you pull up the hand from recently played hands from today. Did the hand have 6 or was it 7 spades to AKQ? I think I recall that it also had something like AQTx in s and the A of s somewhere in there….something there in my quick glance made me wonder whether or not 4 was sufficient. Thx
May 3
Donald Lurie edited this comment May 3
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OK, it's unanimous so far, as I pretty much expected it to be.
Like all who have responded to the poll so far, my partner bid 4 ( - 2-suiter) much to my dread. The companion hand (mine) was T9, QJ752, 3, AJ854.
My kingdom for a horse (or, in this case, an entry): opening lead at table was K. Why don't people lead their partners' suits anymore?
There was some discussion about the OP hand including making the bid with 5-7. Some found the hand to be intriguing or interesting. So I told them I would post it here. Thanks for your indulgence.
Be well, Be safe, be well supplied
May 1
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Partner had a good double: KQ94, A, KJ62, KQ73. I don't anticipate that many would say that partner didn't have his bid. (How many would say that he had more than enough, that he could have been a bit lighter with proper distribution?) A lead beats 4 while another lead requires partner to find the shift at T-2 before the 10 is set up for a discard.
Dummy T53, QT92, A4, A864/ Declarer AJ, KJ8763, T73, J5
April 19
Donald Lurie edited this comment April 19
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I was taught eons ago that a reverse promises one more rebid (at least). So I voted for options 1 &2 above.
In contrast, Karen Walker (kwbridge) writes in her article on lebensohl after reverses that the 2 rebid after the reverse shows a weak hand, 5 to 7 pts with 5+ s and that it can be passed by opener if opener had a minimum 16-17 pt reverse. I find that to be awkward yet it's what I play with one of my most frequent partners.
April 15
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I agree with you that 4X is more likely to go down than 4 is making. But, is that all there is to the story?
I posted this hand because it raised a lot of issues/ questions for me.
1) What is the minimum hand that partner could have for his double of 4, especially at this vulnerability and the fact that he is under some pressure knowing that you are not going to be able to take action and that he is the stronger hand with the shortness is the app's suit and the right shape?
2) Although you could not bid over 2, how much will partner be borrowing from you or what's the minimum that partner might be assuming you have and basing his action on you having a certain minimum amount of values?
3) If partner is basing his/ her action on the assumption that you have a little something, are you producing that little something? If not, can you afford to pass or will partner be expecting you to pull to minimize the potential loss…or are you expected the simply pass and hope partner can beat 4HX.
This all gets back to what would you consider to be the minimum hand partner could have to double 4? Does it need to have a lot of high card strength, enough to likely have 4H just about set in his own hand, or how much could be a combination of a reasonable amount of high card strength (not a minimum opener) but with the right shape where a little bit of defense from you might be needed? Is partner depending on you to pull if/ when having less than the minimal strength that he might have been basing his action on you holding.
Sorry if I am not expressing myself clearly (I never could write to save my life). Hopefully the readers will understand what I am asking, especially since a lot of people so far (almost 3 : 1) have selected to pull the double.
April 10
Donald Lurie edited this comment April 10
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