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All comments by Gábor Szőts
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In fact NV vs. VUL you still go only -1700 if you take no tricks in 1NT doubled. That means you still win 11 IMPs if they have a grand. And if you go down 6 for -1400 and they have a small slam you have still gained 1 IMP.

Which suggests the idea that maybe doubled undertricks should not depend only upon your vulnerability but also upon the opponent's one.
April 19, 2018
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I would not like to see things like Meckstroth's 7 save against 7 (not that I am sure it would have made if he didn't).
April 19, 2018
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But you did.
April 19, 2018
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In view of the club fit (West doubled clubs, a suit not promised by East) East's double may be criticized to some extent although I fail to find a good alternative because 4 would suggests clubsa as his second suit. Maybe 4NT would do.
However, West's pass lacked thought. He knows of a 10-card fit and if his partner is short in clubs that's also good news for him. 4 seems indicated.

One can only wonder what ‘fairly good’ means.
April 19, 2018
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If you open 1NT on every 5(332) then GF, if not then F1 (you have to bid something with a stopperless balanced hand).
So an ‘Other’ would have been useful.
April 4, 2018
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I used to play:

1-2
?
2: 5+, UNBAL. Now 2NT/3m is INV, 2M is ART/GF.
2: BAL. Now 2NT/3 is NF, 2 is pup2NT with various GF hands, 3/M is SPL/GF with long clubs.
2: 4441, unlimited. Now 2NT/3 is NF, 3 is GF with clubs, 3M is trumps.
2NT: quasinatural, 6+, GF
3: NAT, NF
3: solid suit, GF
3M: SPL
3NT: 18-19 if included in 1 but this hand may also bid 2 and go on later.

Please note that with 4 we bid 2, not 2.
April 2, 2018
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Thanks for the votes. I would not have thought it would be so lopsided, I expected a couple of 3NT's. Maybe I should have had West raise to 3.

Partner had xx,AJ10xxx,Jx,10xx. I guess he would have bid 3 over 3, then who knows.

The above situation is hypothetical, though. South actually chose to double and of course North jumped to 3NT. Unfortunately, clubs did not behave.
March 27, 2018
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Actually we do play 2 to show 4 and 3 to show 5 although I am not convinced it is the right way to play. There seems to be a gap with which I'd find 3 as excessive. The hand in question is exactly such a hand.
So I bid 3 but with a fear in my heart.
March 23, 2018
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He was always ready to explain me subtleties of the Meckwell system while commentating on vugraph.
A really nice guy indeed.
March 23, 2018
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Thanks, I know what XYZ is.

Our case started with 1 (not 1). And in traditional methods, 1-1-1-2 is a correction, wanting to play 2.

I can't see particular need for 2 being a prelude to game invitation. 2NT, 3, 3 and 3 seems to me adequate armory to express various invitational hands.

The 2NT puppet to 3 may be fine, although sometimes you'd prefer to contract for only 8 tricks.

In my view XYZ is only justified after 1m-1M-1NT. Or maybe after 1-1-1NT as well if playing Walsh.
March 22, 2018
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OK, let's go further. The actual hand is worth 8 points.
How much is KQxxx,xx,Axx,Kxx? Let's say 7. Now KQxxx,xx,Axx,Qxx? Is that 6? And KQxxx,xx,Axx,Jxx is 5?
Continuing downwards we get that a 1-point hand is about 6 HCP… and the hand which is not worth a non-serious 3NT is about 5 HCP.

I begin to think that my 7 point value is actually too high.

EDIT: I was assuming 1 rating point to be roughly equivalent to 1 HCP. That was wrong, we can use a finer gauge. Still, it seems to me that if the given hand is worth 9 then a value of 1 will be assigned to a hand below opening strength. Unless we use an unpractically fine gauge, e.g. about 1/4 HCP.
March 22, 2018
Gábor Szőts edited this comment March 22, 2018
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I gave it only 7. To achieve a 9 I'd have an extra spade or the Q.
March 22, 2018
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Is it not part of Journalist leads?
March 22, 2018
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Why is this an XYZ situation? How do I play 2?
March 22, 2018
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Thanks for the votes. I bid 4 at the table. That went down 3 (fortunately undoubled). If I had doubled partner would have bid 4 which would have gone down 2 (although he had 6 clubs).
Pass was the winning call as 3 was going down 2.
March 22, 2018
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My wording may have been faulty. I meant that if you open light and bid 2m over 1NT, now if partner bids 2NT you have to be 5-5 so that you can bid 3m which is a sign-off.
If you are not 55 you must pass 2NT which is not going to be a success on a 20-point misfit.
March 22, 2018
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The partner of the 2NT bidder/doubler passes invariably.
March 20, 2018
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2NT-er has only two options: pass or double for penalties. It is his partner who can double for take-out to suggest a 5-level contract.
March 20, 2018
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You have to anticipate your rebidding problem when opening light facing a passed partner. If you don't pass his response but thereby giving him another chance, be prepared to be at least 5-5 so that you can bail out in your second suit if partner bids 2NT. If you have a one-suiter you'd better had opened a weak two.
March 20, 2018
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Taken from BBO official site.

Of course I can see now that there are others as well, e.g. Kit, Timo, Al Hollander, Phil Clayton. I'm at the Meck table.
March 18, 2018
Gábor Szőts edited this comment March 18, 2018
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