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We don't have to speculate, someone has already done it: check table 7 in https://arxiv.org/abs/1607.03290 . It looks fairly random and inefficient use of bidding space, although it seems to have stumbled into transfer openings.
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When I was but a young beginner, I was taught that with 6-9 points, insufficient support to raise Opener's suit, but no suit to bid at the 1 level, that I was supposed to bid 1NT.
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If 2♦ is “not GF” and 2NT shows stoppers in the majors, shouldn't 3♦ be NF showing a 10-12 minimum without a club stopper? I grant the club stopper is looking dodgy, especially after partner has wrong-sided NT for us, but I don't see how that hand is anything like a minimum.
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I don't understand one of the bullet points: “If the opening bid is 1♥ or 1♠, it gets one extra dot.” Doesn't that mean any system at all gets 2 dots to start with?
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If 3♠ is ‘top of the range’ then presumably 3♦ or 3♥ can show bottom and middle. Why you would play this way is unclear, but one certainly could play that way.
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If 2NT is my “slow down” bid, that's my choice. If Partner bids 3♣ (showing not quite a jump shift), then I settle for game in 3NT. If Partner bids 3NT or something else that says he wants to be in game opposite my 6 count, then I try for slam.
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And the computer program that can ask intelligent questions and make inferences from non-standard conventions (3♣ opening showing ♦ or ♥+♠ anyone?) is even harder.
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