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All comments by Scott Needham
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I'm interested in AG's current opinion here. FWIW, and based upon my reading of his stuff, I think he will say they are slam inv: 3m = 5+M-5+m, 3om = 5+M-5+om, 3M = strong jump shift one-suiter, 3H after 1S = 5+-5+. That's an advantageous corollary to using R's rebid 2N—>3C to allow R to show various 5-4 strong hands (2C then 2N = inv). Folks seem to differ on whether the immediate jump shows more “purity” (and what the minimum requirements for that will be), allowing R to use the GF 2D then the 2nd suit to show well-distributed GF+ HCP.
Jan. 10, 2015
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I've been waiting for someone to observe that this is a 5-loser hand, 13.6 on K&R, with nice cards in partner's suit; was expecting some debate on what “sound 2 level game forcing bids” might denote.
Dec. 30, 2014
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If not playing XYZ, 4C = pure 5-5. (I like 1D-1X/2C = F1.) Regardless of XYZ, 4D = pure 6-4. Either = 4ish losers.
Dec. 11, 2014
Scott Needham edited this comment Dec. 11, 2014
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One situation in which I think all of us would assign great value: Opps have shown weakness but a 9-10ish card fit.

A more iffy one: Various situations in which we are trying to decide whether to bid NT with the stiffA in opps' bid-and-raised suit.
Dec. 10, 2014
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I agree, of course. I had briefly considered what might happen opposite partner's best hand, and lost a level. Editing privilege exercised yet again….
Dec. 10, 2014
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I'm with Frances. Regardless of count (and I believe in K&R), can I envision a 2 raise that offers slam? You betcha. My only real question is whether We have the methods to find slam and to stop in 4 if its not there.

Disclaimer: this from a guy who has bid 8 out of his last 6 slams.

EDIT: Why stop in 5 when we can stop in 4?
Dec. 9, 2014
Scott Needham edited this comment Dec. 10, 2014
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2nd round control?
Dec. 7, 2014
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I find fewer 8-10s pauses after a 2N opener or a natural jump to 2N or 3N, and I too feel that the failure to wait is much less objectionable in these auctions (normally the failure to wait drives me nuts). Anyone else?
Nov. 20, 2014
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What exactly are the 5 data categories? Contract is obvious, but none of Times Percent Cumulative scans for me.
Nov. 1, 2014
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Do you believe that a “standard” agreement in this position is that S should expect no values, only shape? As opposed to pass, then 3m or 4m depending upon how the auction goes? that W could not hold, say, Jxxx x xxxxx xxx?

Could N hold, say, xx x Axxxx Kxxxx? or xx x AKxxx xxxxx? or xx x Qxxxx Jxxxx? or xx x xxxxx xxxxx? any of them?
Sept. 30, 2014
Scott Needham edited this comment Sept. 30, 2014
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I'm used to playing a lot of direct 4N = natural in big auctions, and the limited GF hands go through 2D. After …2N-3/3-3 relay ask, cue of stiff = RKCB for X. And now I see that all of those “GF” should be “GF+” (= slammish). Sorry.

And I'm with some of the posters who'd like to see more of these auctions come up. ‘Course then we’d have to get it right….
Sept. 29, 2014
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Jeff, in the version I like, XYZ recovers the SJS at R's rebid: Jumps in Y are single-suited, jumps in X or Z or W are two-suited, pure, slammish.
Sept. 29, 2014
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Some alternatives (these include a 2-way alternative structure, where R's 2 does not force 2 – what do you do with weak 4M-6?):

R’s 2N relay -> 3♣:

R may pass with ♣, bid 3♦ to play (weak 4M-6, if playing 2-way), or
3♥ = GF, 4Y-5X with stiff, relay asks: 1st step = low, 2nd = high,
3♠ = GF, 4Y-5X-2-2, values in X and Y,
3N = GF, 4Y-5X-2-2, more in 2-2

When using 1C-1D/1M-1N with 4OM-6D and weak OR 2 -> 2 so 2 can be to play with weak):

R’s 2N relay -> 3♣:

R may pass with ♣, or
3♦ = GF, 5Y-4X with stiff, relay asks: 1st step = low, 2nd = high,
3♥ = GF, 4Y-5X with stiff, relay asks: 1st step = low, 2nd = high,
3♠ = GF, 4Y-5X-2-2,
3N = GF, 5Y-4X-2-2

Gumperz: 1m-1M/1N-2N/3♣-3X = 4M, 5+ m, stiff X
1m-1M/1N-2N/3♣-3N = 4M, 5+ m, 2-2
1m-1M/1N-2♦/2M or 2OM-3m = 5M, 4 m, GF
1m-1M/1N-2♦/2M or 2OM-3om = 5M, 4 om, GF

In all cases, 1X-1Y/1X-3X = GF+, 5-5 in X and Y
Sept. 29, 2014
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X-Y/Z-2C/2D-2N –> 3C: Now, pass to play, 3 level says something about cards in X and Y, GF+.
Sept. 25, 2014
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1-1/2-2/3-3N/4-4: Assuming 2 = 4thSuit, now 3N cannot be a COG offer with say KJx=KQTxx=xx=KJx? (Ignoring effects of 3N = Serious/Frivolous, and LTTC, but I assume would be agreed….)
Sept. 23, 2014
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ATT, the auction was P-(P)-1-(1)//X -(2)-3-(3)//4-(P)-4-(P)//6, down one when the K was offside as could have been predicted.

When I post-mortemed the deal, I thought West was compelled to follow through with a slam invite, in case Diamond is right and East's hand was any one of several suitable mins with minimal wastage in H or a good 3 rebid kind of hand. I also thought that East's 4 had to show one of those good hands for (4 shows gooooood for , the long hand takes the forces), and, with Cunningham, that, since West passed originally and could not have held all of the cards East wanted him to hold to make slam a good proposition with the overcall by South (missing the A, though….), maybe East should bid 5 instead of 4. Of course, then West would've held Axxx V KT9xx Kxxx instead.
Sept. 15, 2014
Scott Needham edited this comment Sept. 15, 2014
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No GB2NT; 4 is presumptively shortness; changed the E hand b/c this E would've opened 1N for sure with virtually any 5-3-3-2 15 count.
Sept. 13, 2014
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Curious: How do you define 4N in this auction? Like a K-S DI? “really good for slam if you have one of the good hands you could have”?
Sept. 13, 2014
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Does KQx Ax Qx AT9xxx change anything but the creds of the 3 call? I'm changing the E hand, b/c I believe E had to have the 6th .
Sept. 13, 2014
Scott Needham edited this comment Sept. 13, 2014
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No, this is a SNT p'ship.

Drat, left off an option, added now….
Sept. 13, 2014
Scott Needham edited this comment Sept. 13, 2014
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