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All comments by Sven Pride
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I'd consider 1N (it's right on values), but 3N by pd, protecting CHO's half stopper is our likeliest game.
Nov. 14, 2012
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Would pd have bid a new suit or jumped with extras?
Nov. 14, 2012
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I go. What is pd bidding slam on? Pd doesn't have a heart control and has most the AJ of S. There must be minimal club wastage for pd to bid slam.

Does my sequence show slam inv values or have I just shown a GF hand and patterned out?
Nov. 13, 2012
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Sure seems a lot safer (less likely to miss a heart fit) knowing you're going to get another bite at the apple.
Nov. 13, 2012
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Why did I pass the first time?
Nov. 13, 2012
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1) You've balanced with a double, not made a direct takeout double
2) You're at equal colors vulnerability wise
3) Since the 2D bidder is likely to be on lead if on defense, it's not particular good as a lead-direct
4) It's a free bid.
Nov. 10, 2012
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You know, if you look at all the digits of pi, there are a lot of 7's
Nov. 9, 2012
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Technically, if it floats, it's a witch.
Nov. 9, 2012
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Why don't you want to show a diamond fit - 6D may have excellent play if pd is xxxx xx Kxxxxx x a not unlikely hand.
Nov. 9, 2012
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I don't understand the lack of a 4S call. 3S is a free-bid. 4S could be makable opposite no points and in this auction you clearly have some values - likely an Ace.
Nov. 8, 2012
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It's funny. My pd and I play Ghestem in the States and once had the director called on us by a Flight A pair. The bid (3C) shows two known suits. Of course, it's legal.

As to your other point, usually my pd and I play the first cue-bid as the forcing raise. If there's a known fit, there's a better chance at slam.
Nov. 8, 2012
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Peter - I love this treatment. Do you do something similar with 1D P 1S P 2D?
With my well-established pd's I use 1m - 2H and 1m - 2S to be 5/4 in Maj inv vs. GF and 1m - 1S - 1N - 2H non-forcing so to force in the 1D - 1S - 2D auction, in order to have 2H nf, using 3C as a gf relay to 3D seems to cover the bases (until pd forgets and raises clubs :)
Nov. 8, 2012
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2D can be bid on 0 points. Why would you want to bypass 2H with only an eight-card fit
Nov. 7, 2012
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This was the purpose of the poll. My logic (undiscussed) was that there was no way 3C could be non-forcing. Otherwise, what was the purpose of 2D? If I'm looking for a 5-3 spade fit, I don't sign off in 3C. If I have only 4S, club support and am _invitational_ but unbalanced, don't I just directly raise to 3C?

Another good question is, how do I make a slam-going bid setting spades as trump? Couldn't 3C be an advanced cue-bid with spades as trump?
Nov. 7, 2012
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The guilty are rarely caught based on one deal. There needs to be a paper trail of recorder forms or such. Occasionally there is an advanced player set to watch surreptitiously over a period of time in order to gather evidence for a Conduct and Ethics committee.
Nov. 6, 2012
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Yeah - I would have bid 1N (natural) over 1S P P X 1S ? (You're darn right I accept the bid :)
Nov. 6, 2012
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Possible answer

“You showed me your hand after trick six”
Nov. 5, 2012
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a consensus. I doubt it. I think you need to have an agreement like Henry's or something else to discuss what to do in these scenarios.
Nov. 3, 2012
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2H - Inv w/5H
Oct. 30, 2012
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Pd is unpassed. RHO is passed. Why am I preempting?
Oct. 27, 2012
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