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All comments by Zachary Madden
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West probably gambled. Record it anyway. The last time someone said he would file a recorder form against my partnership I told him I would help him fill it out. That’s the point of their existence, isn’t it?
May 3
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I don't really think X by a preemptor as “I want to bid again” is a customized agreement, given that I have successfully made that call undiscussed with “occasional” (the original poster's description) partners myself, and have seen others do likewise. But as I said, I don't play gambling 3NT, so if you prefer, you may imagine me changing my vote to “abstain”.

For the record, I am not claiming X should be imposed, or even that it's a logical alternative - just saying what I'd do.
April 16
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I'd just hit 4 myself. In the auction 3 (P) 3NT (4) most of my partnerships play opener's X to mean “I have extra offense and want to bid again”. Although I don't play gambling 3NT, that's probably what I'd want to do/play here with 4-7 and the club jack. As a bonus, X is definitely contraindicated by the UI, because partner is going to pass it on the assumption I have 25-27 balanced and they'll likely roll 4x.
April 16
Zachary Madden edited this comment April 16
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Hey, I’m depraved on account I’m deprived!
April 12
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I’m sure I’d bid 3 too but I’ve picked up this type of hand before not playing WJS so sticking with my answer (and my -300 or whatever).
April 10
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Thanks Don
Feb. 27
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Fair enough. For sure, I've lost matches by one IMP before.
Feb. 4
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I'm sure teammates will be delighted with that rationale when LHO turns out to be 5242 with QT tight of clubs. “Sorry, I played the diamond ten to try for the overtrick. How was I to get this right?” “Unlucky.”
Feb. 4
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Why is everyone trying to take *three* of the last four tricks?
Feb. 4
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Follow your spirit, and upon this charge…
Jan. 27
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Because it’s penalty?
Jan. 27
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Yeah, but you were in 5, not a partscore. Your auction, for better or worse, was

2 (X) 3 (3N)
P (P) 4 (5)
Jan. 26
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From the ACBL Alert Procedures (which may have changed with the new charts):

“If it is your partnership style to routinely open hands with fewer than 10 HCP, preempt with very weak (frequently worse than Qxxxxx) suits, and/or make overcalls with fewer than 6 HCP at the one-level or with fewer than 10 HCP and/or fewer than five cards in the suit named at the two-level, then the opponents must be pre-Alerted.”

If by agreement you consider 7xxxxx suitable for a weak two, it is indeed a pre-Alert. I have this in writing from rulings@acbl.org as well, although, as I note, it may have changed.

Note that the quoted passage makes no reference to seat or vulnerability. I agree with alerting the 2M bids as well - we do this in my partnerships where they can be, by agreement, something beginners at the club would not expect.

Edit: I have no agenda here, just saying I've also run into this before.
Dec. 8, 2018
Zachary Madden edited this comment Dec. 8, 2018
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Why can’t it possibly be GSF? If I were 100% sure of that I’d agree that it stands out, but…
Oct. 23, 2018
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Man, and I thought I had it rough being an asshole.
Oct. 17, 2018
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Agreed.

1) if we agreed to play fit jumps elsewhere, literally the first thing we agreed was “splinter only in their suit”, or we didn’t agree to play them

2) if we didn’t, and we haven’t discussed this bid, why is partner making it? Just make the second best (but intelligible) bid and take your average minus

3) all that being said most of the people I play with are, like me, juniors or ex-juniors and I think (hope?) that playing this as a splinter is not “standard” in that group
Oct. 8, 2018
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Greg,

There was a recent thread by Jim Perkins along these lines where I asked what I think is a related question, repeated here:

“I have a follow-up question.

To save any anguish about gamesmanship, let me note that this is a hypothetical, and I almost certainly wouldn't do it at the table. But now I'm curious:

Suppose, at the start of a long match, my opponent spends some energy deciding whether to bid game or slam on a hand where his side holds a surplus of HCP. Further suppose that he eventually stops in game, looking agonized, and slam turns out to be on a finesse, with (say) the club king behind the club AQ in dummy; that is, he has made the correct decision.

If I hold the club king, I might decide to duck it when he takes the finesse, with the idea that the 1 IMP loss for the overtrick could be balanced out by the immediate psychological impact of my clearly stressed opponent thinking he has missed a making slam. Of course, we've all lost matches by 1 IMP, so this idea is not without its downsides. Obviously it would also be kind of dumb if I must show my hand upon request. Can someone tell me what Laws apply here?

What if my opponent draws trump and claims, stating, “The twelfth trick is on the club finesse”; am I permitted to say “It wins”, as my intention was always to duck if he played it out?”

I asked a few national directors this; the consensus was that saying “It wins” is permissible but not showing your hand upon request is impermissible. But no one was able to give me a Law-based reason here either.
Sept. 14, 2018
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Danny: We don't think 1 promises a real suit, so this doesn't fall under #3. We do play X as support there.

John: I imply that double is penalty, because we play that double as penalty. It might not be the best treatment, but if we think a hand is borderline, we get in immediately.

Edit: removed comment that didn't make sense.
Aug. 30, 2018
Zachary Madden edited this comment Aug. 30, 2018
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Here's my list, which is similar, and assumes the opponents are bidding in a relatively standard context. I'm sure the wording can be improved, or that someone can point out a case or loophole I've missed.

1. We are in a game-force already.
Example: 1 (P) 2 (2) X.

2. We have tried to penalize them already, other than via (1NT) X, where our second double is defined as takeout by either player.
Example: 1 (2) P (P) X (P) P (2) X.

3. We have promised a real suit and they have tried to play in it anyway.
Example: 1 (2 natural) X.

4. Partner has opened, RHO has doubled for takeout, and we have passed initially but have then doubled a later bid. (This is a consequence of playing transfers over our 1-level bids starting with XX, and is roughly equivalent to the discussion of the power redouble above. In our treatments, if you hold a power redouble type of hand and do not want to transfer to a suit or to NT, you might pass. Later doubles are defined as penalty to cater to this pass. We have some other tech here too, which isn't really important to this discussion.)
Example: 1 (X) P (2) P (P) X.

5. Partner has opened, RHO has overcalled 1NT, and we have doubled directly.
Example: 1 (1NT) X.

6. Partner has preempted (at any level) and they have bid.
Example: 2 (3) X.

7. LHO has opened, partner has made a takeout double, and RHO has bid a new suit.
Example: (1) X (1) X. This is not responsive.

8. We have not yet passed, LHO has opened, partner has passed, RHO has responded, we have passed, LHO has bid 1NT, and partner and RHO have passed. Double in balancing seat is penalty and lead-directional for RHO’s response.
Example: (1) P (1) P (1NT) P (P) X. Penalty, requesting a spade lead.

9. We have attempted to play a partscore after both players have shown values and they have balanced without previously showing values.
Example: 1 (P) 2 (P) P (3) X.

10. They have opened 1M and we have passed directly, but then doubled a higher contract in that same major.
Example: (1) P (1NT) P (2) X.
Aug. 30, 2018
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Hey, I passed at the table, too. Just wanted a barometer.
Aug. 20, 2018
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