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1NT - should it be 100% forcing in response to 1H or 1S

I have been requested to post this by a prospective partner. I have played 2/1 for many years (at least 5 to 7 and probably closer to 10) and 1NT forcing (in Kaplan-Sheinwold, Precision, or modern Standard American) for about 40 years and have always used the 1NT response to 1 of a major as 100% forcing. I am interested in what opinion people who play 2/1 or Precision have (because these are the ones most likely to have given thought to this question) and why they have it ... altho anyone can comment.


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