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Assess the blame (15)

NS reached a no play slam on the following hand:

North
KQ2
AK963
5
J742
South
A105
QJ7
KJ10
A1063
W
N
E
S
1NT
P
2
P
2
P
3
P
3
P
3
P
4
P
4
P
4
P
4NT
P
5
P
6
P
P
P

1NT was 15-17 and 3 was GF.

NS play up-the-line cue bidding, last train and RKCB.

What went wrong? Please assess the blame, using one of the alternatives shown below.

NS hadn't discussed the details of how to continue after this and similar transfer sequences.  Does anyone have a definitive system to cover these situations?

 

100% North
More North than South
Both about equally to blame
No blame - result was mainly unlucky
More South than North
100% South

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