Can you play in a different suit after a Texas transfer??

The following problem was posted recently after partner opens a 20-21 HCP 2NT

The OP problem was just about what responder's basic plan should be.

After some simulations, I determined that 7 is an excellent contract (94% make percentage) when opener has all 3 of A, K, & A, and that he would hold all three of these cards on about 60% of all random deals where he has 20-21 HCPs and a balanced hand.

On that basis, I suggested that a Texas transfer followed by a 5 Exclusion keycard ask might be a good approach.

Then, if opener shows all 3 missing "keys" (5 playing 1430), bid 7 (for play I presumed).

But what if a keycard is missing (40%)?  Then, it would be nice to sign off in 6 since that contract makes considerably more often than 6 (85% vs. 65%) opposite random 20-21 HCP balanced hands with exactly *two* of the 3 keycards.

But I had doubts as to whether 6 would be "for play" after opener's 5 (2 keys, no Q) response to Exclusion, hence suggested responder might have to settle for bidding 6 to play.

In this poll, I'm trying to determine whether 6 (over 5) and/or 7 (over 5 = 0/3) would be taken as "for play" after a Texas transfer to 4 followed by a 5 Exclusion keycard ask in s.

If you think that 6 and/or 7 are NOT "for play", I would appreciate a comment as to what you think that (those) call(s) should mean.

West
32
AQ954
KQ10875
W
N
E
S
P
2NT
P
4
P
4
P
5
P
5
P
6
?

Neither 6 nor 7 are "for play" over reply to Exclusion
Both 6 and 7 are "for play" over reply to Exclusion
7 is "for play" over 5 (0/3), but 6 over 5 (2, no Q) is not
6 is "for play" over 5 (2, no Q), but 7 over 5 (0/3) is not

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