If you use XYZ...

Some friends of ours had a problem sequence the other day. Luckily for us, it was while we were playing against them in a swiss. They had agreed to use XYZ, so it applies in all sequences that start with 1x-1y-1z. Then 2 shows a game forcing hand, but says nothing about diamonds.

One of them chose instead to go through 4th suit forcing, thus 1-1-1-2, which caused a problem, because his partner assumed that game forcing sequences must go through 2 here. Therefore, 2 was not a game force. They ended up stopping in a part score because of this.

So, IF you play XYZ in that sequence, how do you treat the 2 rebid? I can think of several meanings.

1. A good general rule is that any jump beyond a forcing bid is a splinter. So because 1 shows natural spades, and 2 is a game force, then 2 must be a splinter raise of hearts.

2. 2 = 4th suit forcing to game, but explicitly shows 4+ spades.

3. Since you still play 4th suit forcing, now you have two ways to make a general game force. This seems inefficient, because 2 takes up more room than 2. So while 2 is still a GF, it offers some distinction from 2.

4. You agree that XYZ applies only when z=1NT, so 2 is now necessary as 4th suit, game forcing when z was 1. Similarly, 1-1-1-2 is now the GF bid, not 2.

What do you use here?

2♠ = splinter raise of hearts
2♠ = GF, but with spades
Some other variation of game force, in which case, please explain the difference between the 4th suit and 2♢
XYZ only applies when z=1NT
Something else?
Tell me again what is XYZ and why anyone would use it?

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