New Minor Forcing over 1m 1M 2m
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Just a query of what "expert standard" is, inspired by John Torrey's article.

Conditions: assume IMP scoring. For simplicity, responder is an unpassed hand (although I am interested also in passed hand bidding). Assume we are not playing reverse Flannery. Assume fast-arrival by limited hands (so this doesn't really apply for the questions I am posing).

I play that

1 1 2 2 is NMF asking for 4 card suit and/or 3 pieces in . So if responder is 5=4 with a bad hand he bids 1 and then 2 non-forcing. But I have not discussed follow ups or inferences. So I probably should not be playing this.

I welcome partial or complete answers to any/all my questions (there are 3 extended questions).

Question 1

Here are my confused sequences, always with 1 1 2 to start.

2 2 ? What's the difference between 2 3 and 4. Difference between 3 and 4. All are forcing?

What is a direct 3 or 4 jump versus a 3 or 4 rebid after a 2 forcing sequence.

What if responder actually has and wants to make a forcing raise without bypassing 3NT?

e.g. AQxx xx Kxx Axxx

What if you switch clubs and diamonds? Is there any way with 4=2=4=3 (say) to raise ,and set a GF, and keep NT in the picture?

Do people play NMF over 1m 1 2m?

Question 2

How strong should you be to make a NMF call and then jump as responder?

This is inspired by the following hand I picked up on a speedball:

A76 AKQT85 A8 65.

Partner opened 1 and the auction proceeded

1 - 1

2 - 2

2NT - 4 all pass, of course missing a very good slam.

Would 3 or 4 have been the stronger call? Perhaps I should have just blasted, or bid RKC.

New NT forcing?

Question 3

Is it fairly common now that 1m 1M 2m 2NT is forcing to 3m, and is unlimited? This pops up in the Bridge World every so often.

What about over 1 1 2, is 2NT ever played as a 1 round force?