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Tell me why I'm wrong

This hand has been the subject of two recent polls:

85 Q753 Q74 AJ83

Game All, matchpoints.

Partner deals and opens 1 and the next hand bids 2.  The big majority vote was to Pass.

Partner reopens with double.  The big majority vote was to bid 2.

I find this difficult to understand.  I preferred to double on the first round to alert partner to the fact that I had support for the minors and the values to contest a part-score.  Having passed, which seems merely to defer the problem, not solve it, I find the "nothing bid" of 2 very surprising - you would bid this with a totally useless hand.

My choice over partner's double is 2NT (natural).  If this is not available (Lebensohl, maybe), 3 at least shows values and the club suit is respectable; but 3 got very little support.

I appreciate that partner might be minimum with the right shape for a double, but there is nothing to stop him having extras.

Could people please tell me why it is right to take two actions with together show absolutely nothing when holding a hand which is not far off the average in terms of high cards. 

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