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What do you do about this curious explanation

You open 1NT.  LHO doubles, and upon inquiry of the doubler's partner, they say "My partner wants me to bid something."


There's really no such thing as a "takeout double" of a natural 1NT.  Double can show values and a desire to penalize if possible, it can show various suit distributions, etc.  But the explanation "bid something" makes no real sense.


So let's say you are playing weak NT and you have runouts available, but you don't want to run if the opponents are going to do it for you.  Say you hold opposite partner's 10-13 NT:







If the double shows "equal or better" strength you will activate your runout sequence.  If your pass forces a redouble you really don't have much of a problem because if they do float the double you will still be able to run, but in my partnerships we don't have that agreement.  We need to decide right now whether to run.


Let's say 4th hand has a balanced 10 count and passes the "he wants me to bid something" double and says "Well, even though partner wanted me to bid, I didn't really have anything to bid so I hoped we could beat it (and of course they do).  That's precisely the auction you want to guard against by running to clubs, but then it seems you're not really getting their agreement.  Their agreement seems to be "He wants me to bid something unless I think we can beat 1NT."


So what do you do?  How do you get the actual understanding of what they're doing without an inquisition that would make Joe McCarthy proud, especially when they themselves might not know what they're doing?  

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