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All comments by Csaba Czimer
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Doug, I would be interested in a similar stat on 15 HCP 4333 hands. Can you run and publish that one? Thank you.

One of my favourite advice is that if you have 4333, subtract a point. Let's see how much it's worth.
June 7, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment June 7, 2015
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My rule in doubt is that if our game bid can be based purely on shape then our pass is not forcing, otherwise it is. What is the situation here? Opener showed 18-19 balanced. With a weaker shapely hand she should have bid splinter (or 3 or 2) instead. Thus her pass is clearly forcing here.
Btw, a cue bid below 3M denies 4-card support IMO, and even 3 (mostly) if you play support doubles.

One more note: 2 ( = not double and not 4) then 5 is very strange itself. Do they have 8-5 or 7-5 waiting for a double?
June 7, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment June 7, 2015
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to board 1: yes, you are right. If we see JT dropping from West, finessing is about 3 to 1 favourite if we suppose that west drops any 2 cards with equal chance from JT9. (from JT these two cards are always dropped, from JT9 it's 1/3 chance that these two are dropped. If we play it three times, we will see 3 JT from JT and 1 JT from JT9, thus the spade finesse is 73.2% in this case (1 specific 3-3 is 1,8%, 1 specific 4-2 is 1,6%). Martens' chance (after JT dropped) is P(Sp 3-3) + P(Sp 4-2) * P(Cl 2-2) ~ 26.8% + 73.2% * 40.7% = 56.6%.
May 29, 2015
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Good idea. I was too busy choosing between the above two lines. Just a bit more thinking and I might have found this improvement.
May 28, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 28, 2015
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The problem is that if I opt for the “keep them in the dark” (B) plan, then I must win the king before she plays anything. Anyway, I don't think they play suit preference on partner's lead.

The question is instead, how can I mix-up their smith signal (or club count signal?) at trick 2, i.e. which club spot should I play from hand to convince them to continue spades. If it's a smith case for them then their small club at trick 2 means nothing special (you may continue our suit) and a high one asks for a switch. If they judge to show count then a high one is odd, low is even.
May 26, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 26, 2015
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We (bridge players) all make silly mistakes sometimes. Except perhaps you :)
But it does not mean that we are all silly.
May 26, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 26, 2015
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You may be right about the club play, but I may have 18-19 balanced too. We play good-bad 2N, thus I double with that when have 3 hearts.
May 26, 2015
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I chose other, because we bid 1 with 5+ and 4M with at least invitational hands or with 4-4 and GF+.

In our system (after 1-1-1N):
- 2: sign-off in or inviting hands with 5+ and 4, opener must bid 2, responder's next bid is natural (2M = 3 cards) and inviting, showing shape
- 2: GF ask (opener bids naturally)
- 2: natural, inviting, can be passed (5+ and 4 in this suit)
May 25, 2015
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True, it's unusual to ask for trump queen and then ask one more when partner denied it, but I don't think it's impossible.

In my view:
- 5N is never to play
- normally (after RKC) it asks kings (“bid your cheapest king”)
- at MP it does not guarantee all the keycards plus the trump queen, our goal is often to find out whether we can play 6N instead of 6 suit (that may be the case here too)
- omitting RKC it's usually pick a slam (ecxept 1N-5N and 2N-5N)

Anyway, I prefer playing relay systems and spiral scan after RKC (which is 4trump+1 in worst case), they have the great advantage of having well defined bids.

Why did I bid this 4? Did I forgot to subtract 1 point for my great shape again??
May 8, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 8, 2015
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Life of today's authors is easier: you simply enter your deal into a bridge software (GIB, for example) and you can't make silly mistakes, you may also check your analysis.
May 2, 2015
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A few words on bidding. Here is a useful approach that I play after 1m-1M-1N:

- jump above 3M in a new suit: one-suiter slam try with exactly singleton in the named suit (autosplinter)
- 2 (2-way checkback, forces 2) then jump above 3M in a new suit: similar hand with void in the suit.

This way the balanced hand can be evaluated (much) better. The actual hand:

1 - 1
1N - 2 // 2-way checkback, mostly INV, forces 2
2 - 4 // one-suiter , slam try, void in

an easy stop in 4

(Edit: sorry, others mentioned it too, I have not read the comments before writing this one)
April 23, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment April 23, 2015
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I voted on more methods…

If you don't play any gadget then North might rebid 2N after Stayman and you make it. 9 points + 2 good tens - singleton J, I estimate it an ordinary 9 count, that is invite, but I don't really blame him for bidding the vulnerable game, especially at IMP scoring.

About the methods:
in my pet systems after 1N-2-2 we play like this, both can solve this hand

version (a): invit Smolen
2: smolen, INV+, F1
2N: INV
3: 5+, GF
3: GF, SPL, 4441 (or 5m440)

Actual hand:
1N-2
2-3 no major // 4-1-4-4 (or 4-0-(54))
4-5 can't play 3N, good hand for slam // easy sign-off, already overbid slightly
___________________________________

version (b): usual Smolen and 2 puppet
2: puppet to 2
(a) 5-4 weak hand (will pass 2)
(b) 5, INV, (near) BAL (will bid 2N)
© 4+ m, short in the other minor (3m next, opener can ask for shortness and length)
(d) 4441 (5m440) with both minors (3M next)
2: 5-card suit, NAT INV
2N: NAT INV
3: NAT, 4+ suit, short in a major (opener can ask)
3: GF Smolen

Actual hand:
1N-2
2-2 no major // puppet to 2
2-3 // 4-1-4-4 (or 4-0-(54))
4-5 can't play 3N, good hand for slam // easy sign-off, already overbid slightly
March 26, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 26, 2015
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Kit, a question about advancer's bids. Let's suppose that West passes. Does your cue guarantee support in this case too? If yes: how do you bid with forcing hands that lack support? Do you play transfers?
March 15, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 15, 2015
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Let's see a specific one, for example Rodwell's book.
On Amazon, a paperback copy costs 22 USD (I bought it a bit cheaper with free delivery). The same text is divided into 4 parts in the e-book edition, together they cost 25 USD.

I ask it once again. Why the printed version is cheaper? Same author, same editor. I suppose that postmen, pressmen, paper mill workers and loggers all pay a bit to make it possible. Or are they paid? Hm…
March 11, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 12, 2015
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I just can't understand why e-books are more expensive than the same text printed on paper and delivered via air mail. Simply incredible and irrational.
March 11, 2015
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Nice try, but dummy had only 3 trumps originally. You ruffed the third round of clubs, and 2 diamonds with them, thus no trump left to ruff your 4th diamond.
March 11, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 11, 2015
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(moved)
March 11, 2015
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I don't think so.

RHO of course ruffs your high (or any other) spade, so you'd better lead a low one to avoid this, but if he's awake he'll ruff anyway.

If you overruff then you will finish with a diamond and a trump loser.
If you throw a diamond instead then East will lead another club and they will score West's 10 of trumps too.
March 11, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 11, 2015
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Nice greek gift from East of Berkeley. On any other play declarer's only choice is the successful plan.
March 4, 2015
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my 2 options were
- pass then 2N
- pass then double
in both cases I'm going to correct partner's 3 to 3.

What is the difference? I don't think any of them is likely be 5-5, with that I would have acted in the first round (well, mostly).

I guess that DBL then 3 is somewhat simlar to an equal-level conversion double, thus it should have more diamonds, while 2N followed by 3 should be more (or equal) hearts.

What do you think?
Feb. 25, 2015
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