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All comments by Henrik Johansson
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So if this would be matchpoints the pair defending 3 would get 100% for doing nothing and the pair defending 6 played perfect bridge without making a single error would get 0%, how is that better?
Aug. 17
Henrik Johansson edited this comment Aug. 17
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I asked if you really think that the director must be called on every single irregularity or if there are irregularities that players are able to handle themselves? As I said, it's should for very good reasons…

Richard, I draw the line where there are choices to be made for the any side or when the rectification of the irregularity might have an outcome on the result of the board, telling the dummy to put trumps on his right does not qualify for any of those and thus I think it's completely useless to call the director in such a situation.
July 19
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And thats the most practical solution? The TD will never have more important things to do? There is a reason thy must was change to should, and that is that there are irregularities that is easier to handle without calling the director. If my partner won the last trick and quits it as a lost trick, having to call the director to tell him to put it right is just stupid.
July 19
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So when the dummy accidently forgets to put the trumps on the right or puts down a suit in order KQ8953 the TD must be called instead of just asking the dummy to fix it?
July 19
$20
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Of course once in a while 1NT will play better than 2 but when it's wrong it can be really expensive to play NT instead of spades since there are no way preventing opps from running there long suits. But I guess your statistic research shows that when we have xx to xxx in a suit the opponents can never ever score 6 tricks in that suit.
July 13
$20
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As long as +110 is better than -200 I will always bid my major. In my favourite system 1 of course show 11-13 balanced at the same time, so I limit my hand, show my type of hand and also finds my spadefit if it's there.
July 13
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If your partner can't tell the difference between 0 and 3 then you might be playing 5M missing 3 aces. So if you only have 2 aces, you need to know that your partner has at least one before bidding 4NT.
July 9
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Sure, but pass (before anyone has bid) and another call will never be similar, and will never have the same purpose, so for pass there is only the subset option.
July 5
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That could be made on x Qxx KQJTxx xxx, a hand that would open a weak two in diamonds (if available) .
July 5
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Ed, ok so according to you there are no comparable calls to pass.
July 5
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True but who cares. The law never ever talks about hands.

Just because a weak two shows 6-9 and 6 card suit doesn't mean you have to open 2 with AKQ 765432 32 32.
July 4
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Meaning is strength and length… The meaning of 1 opening is something like 11-21 5+ suit. Any call that shows 5+ hearts and 11-21 hcp is a subset, even if there are hands that would not open 1 that also fits that description.

The meaning of pass is only strength. So any call that is, between 0-10hcp will be a subset of the meaning of pass, even though there are many hands that fits that description that would not pass.
July 4
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Marty… Your partner did know what 2 actually ment, you are not allowed to ask if you know. You still think giving the correct explanation of 2 is dishonest?
July 3
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Yes of course 1NT is comparable, it's comparable because it is a subset of the meanings attributable to the withdrawn call, and that is what the law says. The law never says it must be a subset of hands, so we must stop using that vocabulary also. 23C will deal with the fact that there are hands your partner can rule out because of the withdrawn call.
July 3
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So, your partner opens 1, what is your response with
x KQJxxx Qxx xxx? 1NT i presume? But that means that 1NT can me made with a hand that would not pass as dealer (if a weak 2 is available) and there for is not a subset of the hands that would pass.

You are perfectly right, you just need to stop talking about hands, only about meanings. 1NT would be a subset of the meaning of pass (unless 1NT can he stronger than 11).
July 3
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I don't understand your question. If your opponents opens a natural 1 then you have to tell your opponents about your agreements over a natural 1, but if your opponents open 1 you do not need to tell them your agreements over 1 since it's irrelevant.
July 3
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No you are obliged to give answer to calls made and relevant calls not made, what a call means in another situation is not a relevant question since it's not an available call.

Explanation of Calls
1. During the auction and before the final pass any player may request, at his own turn to call,an explanation of the opponents’ auction. He is entitled to know about calls actually made, about relevant alternative calls available that were not made, and about inferences from the choice of action where these are matters of partnership understanding
July 3
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What you actually said now Bud is that there are no comparable calls to a pass out of turn.
July 3
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That would actually be giving MI on purpose. The opponents have the right to you agreement, nothing more, nothing less. If your partners hand doesn't fit your explanation a MI ruling will take place.
July 3
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A single raise has absolutely nothing that is similar to a opening pass.

A call that is similar shows the same strength +/-2hcp and the same length in showed suits +/-1 card.
July 3
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