Join Bridge Winners
All comments by Imtiaz Husain
1 2 3 4 5
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The first is based on a shapely hand and support points and the second is an invite based on raw hcp.
May 17
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Why is 2 by West - bid your major?
May 16
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Is there a location where the Vugraphs (as Ping point above) can be referenced/looked at?

The format for the vugraphs in Saratakos site load up differently.
Is there a way to load up sets of lin files?

Do you know where I could get the format for the lin files
March 28
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This worked really well. I wish I do the same with lin files: fancy title for the set of boards, results you can compare with etc.
March 28
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We could all get married to bridge. I believe wedding events are excluded from the 100 person rule.
March 13
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Like Jay Inslee regarding banning large events > 250 in WA State or suggesting grandpa not risk attending the wedding but making up for it in other ways. This issue is not the scare of CoV-19, but rather the risk it poses by possibly overwhelming the health system. A large of mitigatable deaths occurred due to this reason in Wuhan.

This virus is not as deadly as SARS, but much more virulent.
As such it is far more dangerous. It is unlikely that we can avoid getting infected. We can however slow its progression
through our community.

If fear does that - that maybe that's a good thing!
(But yeah stealing N95 mask - no I do not agree with that!)

Also who even is suggesting going to ER or your doctor if you
suspect having been infected? You should be calling the hotline
and getting tested.
March 12
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I think the real issue is not whether Cov-19 is dangerous and whether you are is a high risk group. The real issue is that Cov-19 is highly virulent, can require hospitalization for a small percentage of the population. If everyone was to get it at once, we would exceed the capacity of our health system.

Those who get pneumonia from this disease need proper care, including hospital rooms and ventilators.

I am not encouraging the cancellation of this event. I am just suggesting that it is prudent to consider the impact having such an event may have on the community at large. Almost all of us will eventually get infected.
What really matters is when we get it.

Let's just not think about the risk to ourselves, but consider the risk to others as well.
March 12
Imtiaz Husain edited this comment March 12
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I play lebensohl as on
Feb. 13
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Is 3N here an obvious relay to 4C?
Feb. 13
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Yeah the 5 bid makes no sense in Matchpoints
especially with something like:

AKx AJx AKQxxx x
Feb. 13
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2 makes is difficult to find the fit. It shows about hcp:10+. This hand calls for transfers over overcalls.
Not having that the negative double is right, hoping to
find the fit. Failing that show a weak hand with s.
After opponent's 3 bid - partnership agreement plays a
big role here.

I play 3 here to be hcp:17+ - 19, so I find this 3 bid
dubious. It looks like the final contract is going to be
4Cx and there is still a lot of bidding from here to there.

I can imagine the following hands:

N: Kx AJT9 x KQT9xx
S: xxxx x Jxxxxx xx
W: AJx Kx AKQxx Jxx

If North is any better, this is going to be a death trap for EW.
This 3 bid smells.
Feb. 12
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Did you forget that East was drooling when he doubled the second time, or is the real question is who forgot to redouble the stripped ape double?
Wait-a-minute is anyone even suggesting that East didn't realize that South was open to the prospects of slam?
We didn't he call the director right after dummy came down?
[Cause he thought he was going to set 5X

Can we all just double contracts randomly when its is clear opponents have a bidding misunderstanding, and then get the
double removed if the contract makes on grounds that if there had not been a misunderstanding we would never have doubled.
Feb. 11
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That's why I had bid 1NT. Only, to find my partner had a 4=4=4=1 shape. He bid 2 and I bid 2 and he passed.

It is hard to use that argument (of getting gains) when justifying getting a 0% on a hand, when the field is playing 1 or 2.

There are 3 situations A/B/C sub 1 = bypass 1; sub 2 = bid 1

A) Responder has a game-forcing hand

Clearly when responder has a game-forcing hand, bypassing 1, XYZ will find out, either way. In fact bidding 1 allows you to find 5-3 fits. Hence, the benefit of bypassing 1 is a myth here.

A1) 1-1;1N-2;2 Don't know anything about Heart suit
A2) 1-1;1-2;2 Opener has :3 4=3=4=2 or 4=3=5=1

B) Responder has an invitational hand

B1) 1-1;1!N-2;2-2 :5 :4 invitational hand
wrong sides contract, doesn't handle :4 :4
B2) 1-1;1-2;2-2 :5+ mild game invite
now pass shows :3
2N shows fewer s and/or a balanced hand

-1;1N-2;2-2
Can still show :5 :4 invitational hand
or can be an XYZ impossible spade treatment

C) Responder has a weak hand

C1) Gets to 1N when responder may pass 1 with :3
Also right-sides 1N (does not find fit)

C2) wrong sides 1N
can play in either 1 or 2


All in all, I don't really see the gain - I see the loss
Jan. 25
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Yes, weak NT situation is a different beast altogether.
Jan. 25
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This is one of those fundamental points, I demonstrated poor judgment by bidding 1-(p)-1-(p)-1N on, as opener.

Opener doesn't get to use XYZ or NMF. It is a choice responder makes. If his hand is not an invitational hand or better, there
is no checkback sequence. 1N is non-forcing. Responder can
always pass 1N.

On this hand I didn't have a problem with my partner passing 1N,
because I had values in the side suits. 1N making 2 would have
been a great result, as 2 (4-4 fit) making 2 would be average.
However, responder was 4=4=4=1 with about 7 hcp. So NMF, even
if we played it would be out of the picture. We ended up playing
2 for a average minus.

The bottom line is bypassing 1 makes sense in the following
sequence: 1-(p)-1-(p)-1N, because if responder has :4+,
he will use checkback to find the fit.

It does not make sense in the sequence 1-(p)-1-(p)-1N,
because, if he lacks an invitational hand or better, responder
will not find the 4-4 fit.
Jan. 19
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1) My understanding is never. Bidding went 1-(p)-1-(p) and I bid 1NT (We play XYNT) and bidding continued 2-(p)-2-(p)-p-(p)
Lesson learnt! Answer is never!
Jan. 18
Imtiaz Husain edited this comment Jan. 18
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1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-3
:4+ :4 gf good distrn others play :top2/3

Assume then this sequence is used by you to show :top2/3
rather than a distributional game-forcing raise. I would rather show unspecified shortness this way, than show :top2/3
You also have the 5/4 splinters sequences:

1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-4
:5+ :4 gf 4=5=3=1 or 4=6=2=1 !(:A|K)

1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-4
:5+ :4 gf 4=5=1=3 or 4=6=1=2 !(:A|K)

Also using 1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-2N-(p)-3-(p)-3 to describe a
1=4=4=4 slam-invite hand in makes little sense to me.
Why not start with:
1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-2-(p)-?-(p)-3
or
1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-2-(p)-?-(p)-3
Jan. 18
Imtiaz Husain edited this comment Jan. 18
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I also have in my notes:
1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-2-(p)-2-(p)-2
:5+ mild to normal game invite

Art, in general I agree with you - invitational sequences should not pass the 2 level (unless they are safe to do so). The standard invitational sequence stops at the 2 level.


Another facet of XYZ is that 2 asks 2 tells. So the invitational sequence with the jump says that the heart suit is good enough, with sufficient high card points to be safe at that level, while the 2 bid warns you that either the trump suit and/or the high card points may be lacking to play at the 3-level.

It is also possible to have a third form of invite that might be useful to communicate to your partner. You may have an invitational hand of a distributional nature. Depending on your partnership agreement and whether you are more interested in tailoring to find games rather than slams, you might want to leverage the 2N-3 relay for invitational hands.
In that case 1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-2N-(p)-3-(p)-3
shows an unspecified singleton with :6+

You can add jumps to games, various 4 level splinters, treatments showing top 2/3 honors with specific outside controls. The point is those sequences exist as XYZ allows for them. Whether you are playing Flannery, Reverse Flannery, Precision, Transfer over 1C, Transfers over 1D, MPvsIMPs, etc; these all factor in to how you may want to tailor your XYZ.
Jan. 15
Imtiaz Husain edited this comment Jan. 15
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Here is what my notes have:

1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-3
:6+ gf :good strongest rebid in

1-(p)-1-(p)-1-(p)-2-(p)-2-(p)-3
:6+ strong game try based on hcp :AQT9xx+
Jan. 11
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Hi Bilal,

By XYZ definition 2S is invitational in the following sequence:
1m-1;1N-2;2-2

2N by opener is simply a preference bid.

Stephen that is what should have been on the options list.
The real quick is when do you pass 2 and when do you show
preference to 2N. Clearly whether you are playing IMPs or MP is relevant.

In MP, you want to have a doubleton spades, ideally with an honor, in hopes of running the spade suit. Hoping that both 2 and 2N make exactly. With 5-1 you hope that you can ruff and make your
contract that way instead. Presence of Qs and Js may be another
factor suggesting the 2N bid.
Jan. 7
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