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All comments by Karl Junk
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It is entirely possible that each defender thought that the other still held a higher club.
April 15, 2018
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If director rules 3nt-1 making, he rules against E/W, and if he rules 3nt making, he rules against N/S, who are customers as well. So whatever he does, he cannot comply with rule #1.
April 13, 2018
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To my surprise when discussing an auction that contained this sequence with my partner (we happened to find it in some booklet) we realized that we had different opinions. For me it was clear that 2 is forcing for one round only, and he was sure that it is gameforcing. We immediately scanned some books for a definition, but failed to find this sequence (or similar) or some general rule that covers the situation. Later when I did a little web search I again did not find it.

My view is that some bid that creates a game force has to be mentioned in the system description. As the short descriptions of the 2 German standard systems do not mention this sequence, I assume it is not gameforcing. Maybe in some other system like SAYC, SEF or Polish club this is different?

In the pro-gameforcing comments here I failed to find some explanation why it should be gameforcing. Of course one could say according to the poll the overwhelming majority plays it as gameforcing so it must be gameforcing, but I am not satisfied with this.

My main point why I think it should be forcing for one round only is that it is a good idea to bid a 2-suiter if you got one, so opener knows your distribution and can make better decisions. This is not only true if responder is gameforcing, but also if he has only invitational strength. If in this case he was not allowed to bid the 2-suiter, he would have to bid 1 first and never mention the clubs. On the other hand I fail to see the big disadvantage for the opener if he does not know if responder has gameforcing values or not. If opener is strong enough for game even with a minimum responder, he can easily force to game himself with forth suit forcing or 3nt or above. And a minimum opener can easily bid 2nt, 3, 3 or 3 non-forcing.
March 17, 2018
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The Law 20F requires players to give correct information. If they fail to do so, no matter for what reason, this is misinformation, and this is an irregularity (Law 21B3).
Dec. 30, 2017
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People tend to focus on one aspect of a problem and ignore another. In the real world, if everybody always judges a situation from all possible points of view, consensus would be reached far more often, and there would be no religion.

Here South focused on opps' bidding and their explanation. Even if South saw the pass cards in front of North, the conclusion that these pass cards meant he has at most 11 HCP and therefore EW must at least have 26 HCP and therefore their explanation must be wrong did not occur. This does not qualify as a serious error, and not at all as an extremely serious error. And as noted before, even if it was an extremely serious error, it would have been related to the infraction, as without the infraction - correct information given - no damage would have occurred.
Dec. 30, 2017
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Of course, 1 opening includes all unbalanced hands with longest suit .
Dec. 5, 2017
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1nt opening by North would have shown 15-17 balanced, therefore after 1 North shows 12-14 or 18-19 if it was a balanced hand. This time, it was 18 balanced.
Dec. 5, 2017
Karl Junk edited this comment Dec. 5, 2017
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Thanks for your Votes. The reason for the poll was that North took some time before her pass after the 1nt, and South bid 2. The poll clearly suggests that pass was a logical alternative for South.
Dec. 5, 2017
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The German Regulation (“Turnierordnung”) tells us to alert a bid if it is artificial or has an unusual meaning or strength §(15). In this case, the strength of the 2 bid may be unusual, depending on the environment where this is bid - if in some bridgeclub several pairs are known to bid a new suit nonforcing after a jump overcall, it may be not unusual, but in general this is not played nonforcing and therefore has to be alerted. North is misinformed an should have called the director before South's call. If he succeeded he should be allowed to change his pass. South is not misinformed, as East's pass shows that the 2 was non-forcing, and he can never change his call.

If it is too late for North to change his call, he can call the TD after the hand in case N/S is damaged by the misinformation, and the TD may adjust the score based on Law 21B3.
Nov. 30, 2017
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Did the ABCL add anything substantial to the Laws? Unless they did, I would rather think that the copyright belongs to the WBF. Generally, IMO any laws should not be published under copyright. E.g. there is no copyright for German laws. The main web page where all German laws can be found (http://www.gesetze-im-internet.de/) states: “The legal standards in German language are available in all offered formats for free use and further use.” (Translation by deepl.com, new and outstanding)
Aug. 31, 2017
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OP's 3. choice was: ‘Players should be allowed to “game” the system by intentionally revoking and hoping nobody notices.’ Surprisingly, this is possible under the 2007 as well as 2017 Laws if the player is in second seat for the 12th trick and dummy leads. Example (nt contract):

………Dummy
……… 3 2
? ?……….9 8
………Q ?

East knows the distribution and the owner of the Q by now, and knows that there are 765 missing. Normally it is not relevant who has which card. But if East decides to revoke, West will claim 2 tricks with his 76 or 75. If declarer happens to have the 7, East says “sorry, I revoked”, and shows the 8 which gets it's trick. This might even work earlier than trick 12, but in trick 12 there are more situations where an evil defender can benefit from this lack of the Laws.
Aug. 30, 2017
Karl Junk edited this comment Aug. 30, 2017
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Imagine in the middle of some future EBL event it is discovered that a pair has radio transmitters in their shoes and radio receivers in their ears. A tap with a toe generates a sound in partner's ear. I guess the committee would rule that cheating cannot be proven, as no radio communication had been recorded, and if such communication was recorded, no correlation between the signals and the strength of their hands could be found.
Feb. 13, 2017
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I understood that East said that his parter would not alert the 1. But the TDs seem to assume that East said that his partner will tell South that 1 is at least 3 cards. What did East really say?

If East really said that there will be different explanations at both sides of the screen, and not just no alert by his partner, North should have called the director immediately, and the director should have have awarded ave+/ave- for this board and instruct E/W to agree on a system.

The actual decision is ridiculous, no matter what East said.
Sept. 21, 2016
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If South has eg. AKQxx xxx xxx xx, we make 9 tricks no matter if we play or nt.
Sept. 10, 2016
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Thanks for the votes and comments. The whole hand was:

http://www.bridgebase.com/tools/handviewer.html?b=3&d=s&v=e&n=sAKQ3dQT82cQT543&en=Karl&e=s8hKQJ6dKJ7cAKJ62&s=sT654hA8732dA9c87&a=pp1cp1hp1sp2sppxp3dppp

Only 3 times East or West declared resulting in top scores for N/S. North declared a contract in the other 11 cases, and most of them won at least 8 tricks. 2= was 69% for E/W. Club tourney with a few experts.

Edit: minor changes
July 11, 2016
Karl Junk edited this comment July 11, 2016
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The word “illegal” is not used in Law 7. The term “illegal call” is used in the Laws only twice - in Law 16A1a and in the footnote 10 for Law 31A2. Law 16A1 states that illegal calls can (sometimes) be accepted. In order for that to be possible, an illegal call cannot auto-cancel itself.
July 9, 2016
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Regarding the case of a player who makes a call without looking at his hand, everybody immediately knows that the proper procedure was not followed. But even then, the law does not state that the call is illegal, and there is no instruction in the law for the director how to handle this. If I was called in such a case, I would probably award a disciplinary penalty, cancel the call and instruct the player to put his bidding cards back into the box, look at his hand and then make a call that replaces the original one. But also in this case the call is only cancelled when I say so. The law never states that a call auto-cancels itself immediately when made, and it would be ridiculous to assume that. One ridiculous consequence of such an auto-cancellation would be that a subsequent call by LHO would be out of rotation.
July 9, 2016
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“A call is cancelled” refers to an action. This cannot happen automatically at the moment when the player who is holding the wrong cards makes his call, and nobody is aware of it. Rather, the cancellation must be stated by the director, and takes effect when he does so. Before he does so, the call is not in a “cancelled” state, so it is possible that the auction finishes, an opening lead is faced, and the play period has started irrevocably.
July 8, 2016
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In my opinion, it is not possible to make an artificial call if there is no partnership understanding of some kind. Regarding gambling 3nt, I would only bid it if I expect partner to know about the existence of this convention, and if I do not have a meta-agreement like “all undiscussed calls are natural for sure”. Therefore, the explanation that David Patterson gave is required, and just stating “not discussed” would be incomplete, unless this is a pickup partnership and they do not know each other at all.

In other words: If I bid 3nt gambling, I expect my partner to think “This must me gambling”, and imply a partnership understanding that must be disclosed.
July 8, 2016
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It is an afternoon club tourney. Opps have an expected score of 55% based on their achievements of the last 2 years. They also play in the lowest regional team league.
June 5, 2016
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