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All comments by Leonard Helfgott
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For once I agree 100% with everything Lee has said. Make that 200%.!
Sept. 9
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He doesn't or I certainly wouldn't expect it. After the session, I asked a very solid expert his view, which I will reveal later.
Sept. 9
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I thought the same, and don't feel strongly either way. I really wanted to see how many 3NT-ers there would be.
Sept. 9
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Richard: This is MPs. Did you mean IMPs instead? Of course you won’t know if the cat is dead or alive until you open the box! (Shroedinger). That’s bridge.:)
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Sept. 5
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Nick and I have looked at some of these numbers in the past. I do know from strong authorities that 5-2 plays about 2/10th trick better than 4-3, on the average. That’s not all that much. Obviously 5-3 plays better than 5-2 and 6-4 plays better than 4-3. By how much I don’t know. I do know that the 54/55/64 patterns occur in almost exact 65:20:15, easy to check in frequency tables, so someone could do some math there. Then you would need to subjectively decide how much risk in “giving up the plus” is involved in partner bidding again if you take the false preference, partner bids on, and you mat be set in a higher contract. If it were guaranteed that partner would pass 2S then everyone would try it.
Sept. 4
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Your sample hand screams perfecto to me.
Sept. 2
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Hmm. Another bid? If partner tries 2NT are you going to bid game? Seems doubtful as he could be hoping for 9hcp. If he tries 3S (6-4) or 3H (5-5) are you confident of game given that he didn’t jumpshift initially? His range with 9 majors is ~11-18 and with 10 major maybe 10-17, right? The 5-2 will play better (a bit) than the 4-3 on balance—-maybe that enough of a reason.
Sept. 2
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Yes, I agree in theory, and personally in practice. However, many passed hand responders with close to an opening bid, like 11 or VG 10, are fearful that a 1NT response would be passed when there is game, not accepting that the parlay of opener’s pass of 1NT (usually balanced even if minimum) combined with a missed game opposite the “right” responder’s hand is a very narrow window/ledge. For this reason I hope we can all agree that 2/1 by a passed hand (and not Drury or specialty bid) should ALWAYS require at least 5 cards in suit, and preferably 6+ excluding very selective situations. (A bit more leeway for good 5 card heart suits, IMO).
Sept. 2
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How about a very weak 6 bagger or a 1354/1255 with strong diamonds. Rare to have only 5 diamonds, but not unreasonable, IMO.
Aug. 31
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Note to all: by accident I neglected to insert North’s missing pass, so this is a rebid problem for 3rd chair opener. Please correct your choice if you deem original choice has changed. Thanks.
Aug. 31
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Sorry, Dave. The opener’s hand, just corrected.
Aug. 31
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Good point about the scoring Brad, although any plus might be OK. I gather from your comment that if the suits were spades and hearts, you would have passed.
Aug. 27
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In Precision with 1=4=5=3 after 1D-1S you can show your 3 extra diamonds with 2D. In Standard, however, if I have e.g. x Qxxx AXxxx AKx I have have good results with 2C (preferring it to 1NT) and have not been passed in a 3-3 yet!
Aug. 26
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Someone can correct me if I am wrong, but in Bridge World Standard 1D-1S-2C-2D-2S shows clear extras and conversely 3-1-5-4 minimums should raise. They do not address the issue of quality of spade support for the raise, and in this extreme case I chose to rebid 2C and pass the 2D preference. But it certainly wouldn’t take much more in spades to raise immediately, raising the eyebrows of most club partners.
Aug. 25
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Agree with Craig. While I advocate 3 card raises more than most others, and play minmax/spiral when I can, I still try to hold Hxx or HHx for the raise. So here 2C with 2S acceptable, but with KJx x AQxxx Kxxx I strongly advocate the raise, and try to explain to partners why 2C is “wrong.” If I had a partner who insisted on a raise with the actual xxx spades her, no problem.
Aug. 25
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Barry: Why do you find 3S as unspecified splinter more efficient than the direct 4C or 4D splinter(and 3S for just spades? ).
Aug. 24
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I’m with Craig. This hand is an arguable opening bid so I think 2NT describes this well whether 2H is gf or not. It is much more likely that opener had 2 spades than 3, and if he has 14 or good 13, NT game seems best. I would never jump to 3NT with this hand after already using 4SF. And while most do play 4SFGF, hands with invitat. Values and both majors are still a problem, and making the one exception (as well as 1C-1D-1H-1S NOT GF) is sensible. BWS84 wasnt too bad!
Aug. 24
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Happy Birthday to a good friend and great (tho only occasional)partner. Please visit NJ more often!
Aug. 23
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Patrick: If you would argue that AKJx xx xx AKQxx (17hcp and no stiff) should open 1NT then this poll was not addressed to you.
Aug. 22
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Brad. I’m in your camp. Anecdotally when I started playing teams for my company as a novice, my partner set up the card with 2NT as 22-23 with all suits stopped. Shortly I picked up something like 97xxx AKQ AQJ AK and opened 2NT. Partner raised to 3NT with som values, and LHO knew what to lead with AKQJT of spades. Figure the odds.
Aug. 20
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